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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 18.06.2025 04:03

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

What makes you think that former U.S. President Donald Trump's legal team has already been laying the groundwork for an appeal in the hush money trial?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Do you consider yourself pretty?

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Do you think Christine Lagarde will be headed and will be heading for success in the next French presidential elections starting as soon as 2027?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.